SSC STENOGRAPHERS GRADE C & D EXAM SOLVED PAPER

SSC Grade C & D Stenographer Recruitment

Staff Selection Commission will hold on Sunday, the 27th December 2015,
an All India Open Competitive Examination for recruitment to the posts of Stenographer Grade ‘C’ ( Group ‘B’ Non-Gazetted ) and Stenographer Grade ‘D’(Group ‘C’ Non-Gazetted).

Number of Posts: 1064

Eligibility criteria for SSC Stenographer Recruitment 2015
Education Qualification: Candidate should have passed 12th Standard or Equivalent from a recognized Board or University.

Age Limit: As on 01st August 2015, candidates age should be above 18 years and not more than 27 years (born after 02-08-1988 and not later than 01-08-1997).

Pay Scale: Stenographer Grade C in Pay Band 2 plus Grade Pay as admissible and Stenographer Grade D in Pay Band 1.
Selection Criteria: Selection of the applicants will be done through a competitive written examination. Qualified applicants in the written examination will be called for Skill Test/ Typing Test and Stenography Test.

Application Fee: Payment of Application fee is exempted for all women candidates and SC/ ST with Disability and Ex-Servicemen Eligible for reservation, as per Government orders. The Candidates Submitting application offline (paper mode) should pay the fee of Rs. 100/- by means of Central Recruitment Fee Stamps (CRFS) Only. SSC Stenographer Grade C D Notification 2015 Apply Online

How to Apply: Eligible candidates can submit their application through online mode only before last date.

Important Dates:
Last date to apply online form 07th September, 2015

Date of Exam: 27-12-2015
Important Links:Official Notification for Click Here

Official Website for Click Here 

SSC Stenographers Exam (Grade 'C' & 'D') Syllabus 2015

General Intelligence and Reasoning (50 Marks) :
 It would include questions of both verbal and non-verbal type. The test will include questions on analogies, similarities and differences, space visualization, problem solving, analysis, judgement, decision making, visual memory, discriminating observation, relationship concepts, arithmetical reasoning, verbal and figure classification, arithmetical number series, non-verbal series etc. The test will also include questions designed to test the candidate’s abilities to deal with abstract ideas and symbols and their relationship, arithmetical computation and other analytical functions.

General Awareness (50 Marks): 
Questions will be designed to test the ability of the candidate’s general awareness of the environment around him and its application to society. Questions will also be designed to test knowledge of current events and of such matters of everyday observation and experience in their scientific aspects as may be expected of an educated person. The test will also include questions relating to India and its Neighboring countries especially pertaining to Sports, History, Culture, Geography, Economic scene, General Polity including Indian Constitution, and Scientific Research etc. These questions will be such that they do not require a special study of any discipline.

For VH candidates of 40% and above visual disability /cerebral palsy affected candidates and opting for scribe there will be no component of Maps/Graphs/Diagrams/Statistical Data in the General Intelligence and Reasoning / General Awareness Paper.

English Language and Comprehension (100 Marks): 
In addition to the testing of candidates' understanding of the English, its vocabulary, grammar, sentence structure, synonyms, antonyms and its correct usage, etc. his/her writing ability, would also be tested.

Skill test in Stenography:Candidates who obtain the qualifying marks in the Written Examination as may be prescribed by the Commission will only be called for the Skill Test. It may also prescribe qualifying marks in each part of the Written Examination. THE SKILL TEST WILL BE OF QUALIFYING NATURE and the Commission will fix the qualifying standards in the skill test for different categories of candidates.

The candidates will have to appear for the stenography test. The candidates will be given one dictation for 10 minutes in English / Hindi at the speed of 100 w.p.m. for the post of Stenographer  Grade ‘C’ and 80 w.p.m. for the post of Stenographer Grade ‘D’. The matter will have to be transcribed on computer only. The evaluation of transcription will be done electronically only. The transcription time is as follows–

● For Stenographer Grade ‘D’ : 50 minutes ( English ) 65 minutes ( Hindi )
● For Stenographer Grade ‘C’: 40 minutes ( English ) 55 Minutes ( Hindi ) 

General Science (Physics) Practice Questions for all Exams

1. Which mirror is to be used to obtain a parallel beam of light from a small lamp ? – Concave mirror 
2. The focal length of the lens in a photographic camera is 5 cm. What is the power of the lens? – + 20 D 
3. When viewed in white light, why do soap bubbles show colours? – Because of interference 
4. Angular separation between two colours of the spectrum depends upon which thing? – Angle of deviation 
5. Total internal reflection of light is possible when light enters from which thing? – Water to air 
6. Which is used to remove astigmatism for a human eye? – Cylindrical lens 
7. Why does diffusion of light in the atmosphere take place? – Due to dust particles 
8. Which phenomena can not be attributed to the refraction of light? – Redshift 
9. Total internal reflection can take place when light travels from which thing? – Diamond to glass 
10. The refractive index of a given piece of transparent quartz is greatest for which light? – Violet light 

36. Why is In a hydel station the motion produced in turbines? – Due to the flow of water 
37. What is most suitable for the core of an electromagnet? – Soft iron 
38. At a grid sub stations the voltage is stepped up to reduce loss of which thing? – Power 
39. Equal charges are given to two spheres of different radii. What will the potential be? – More on smaller sphere 
40. Two electron beams are travelling parallel to each other. What will be their reactions? – Repel each other 
41. Instrument used to store the electric charge is known by which name? – Capacitor 
42. When an ebonite rod is rubbed with fur, which charge acquired by the fur? – Positive 
43. Conversion of chemical energy into electrical energy occurs in which thing? – Battery 
44. What is the temperature at which a ferromagnetic material becomes paramagnetic? – Curie temperature 
45. A magnetic needle is kept in non uniform magnetic field. What does itexperiences? – A force and a torque 
46. Where will be the Time period in a vibration magnetometer infinite? – At magnetic pole 
47. The north pole of the earth’s magnet is near the geographical which direction? – South 
48. If the current in the core decreases, what will the strength of the magnetic field be? – Decreases 
49. The intensity of a magnetic field is defined as the force experienced by which pole? – Unit north pole 
50. If a material, placed in a magnetic field is thrown out of it, then how is the material? – Diamagnetic 
51. The capacity of a pure capacitor is 1 farad. In D.C. circuit, what will its effective resistance be? – Infinite 
52. If a bar magnet is cut length wise into 3 parts, what will the total number of poles be? – 6 
53. For electroplating a spoon, it is placed in the voltameter at which postion? – The position of cathode 
54. A substance, when inserted between the poles of a magnet, is pushed out, what is it? – Diamagnetic 
55. By inserting a soft iron piece into solenoid, what does the strength of the magnetic field? – Increase 
56. The magnetic induction associated with currents flowing in a hollow copper tube, how will be? – only out side 
57. How is the electric potential at the centre of a charged conductor? – Same as on the surface 
58. What is not the cause of low conductivity of electrolyte? – Ionisation of salt 
59. What is Electric field intensity at a point a hollow charged spherical conductor? – Is zero 
60. Which property is processed by the ferromagnetic substance? – Hysterasis 
61. Which type of cell can be used if a device requires 75 A of current for 15 seconds? – Lead-acid cell 
62. A hydrogen atom is paramagnetic. What is a hydrogen molecule? – Diamagnetic 
63. In nuclear fission, how many percentage of mass is converted into energy? – 0.1% 
64. X210 has half life of 5 day. What is the time taken for seven-eights of sample of X210 to decay? – 15 days 
65. If a U-238 nucleus splits into two identical parts, how will the two nuclei be so produced? – Stable 
66. What is the half-life of a radioactive element which has only 1/32 of its original mass left after a lapse of 60 days? – 12 days 
67. If a proton of mass m is moving with the velocity of light, what will its mass be? – Infinite 
68. What was the fissionable material used in the bomb dropped at Nagasaki (Japan) in the year 1945? – Plutonium 
69. Energy transferred to a person through gamma rays is measured in by which unit? – Roentgens 
70. Which field is used to produce deflection in a television picture tube? – A magnetic fields 
71. The electron emitted in beta radiation originates from where? – Inner orbits of atoms 
72. From which the cathode ray particles originate in a discharge tube? – Cathode 
73. Einstein’s mass energy relation is given by which expression? – E = mc2 
74. Which rays will deflect in electric field? – Cathode rays 
75. What percentage of the original quantity of a radioactive material is left after five half lives approximately? – 3% 
76. What is the important conclusion given by Millikan’s experiment about the charge? – Charge is quantized 
77. What are Alpha rays emitted from a radioactive substance? – Helium nuclear 
78. Which are the Particles that can be added to the nucleus of an atom without changing its chemical properties? – Neutrons 
79. Which particle has similar mass to that of the electron? – Positron 
80. When the speed of electrons increases, then what happens in the value of the specific charge on an electron? – Decreases 
81. The colour of the +ve column in a gas discharge tube depends on which thing? – The gas in the tube 
82. The first explosion of an atomic device in India was carried out in which state? – Rajasthan 
83. Direct conversion of solar energy with the use of photovoltaic cell results in the production of which energy? – Electrical energy 
84. Why is energy is continuously generated in the sun? – Due to nuclear fusion 
85. What is the ratio of specific charges of an á-particle to that of a proton? – 1/2 
85. Long distance short-wave radio broad casting uses which waves? – Ionospheric wave 
86. Which satellite is used in ship-to-shore and shore-to-shore and shore-to-ship communication? – Marisat 
87. Which is electrical circuits used to get smooth de output from a rectified circuit called? – Filter 
88. When the temperature of semiconductor is increased, what will happen in its electrical conductivity? – Increases 
89. With the rise of temperature, what will happen in the specific resistance of semiconductor? – Decreases 
90. The absorption of radio waves by the atmosphere depends on which thing? – Their frequency 
91. Which are the space waves are affected seriously by atmospheric conditions? – UHF 
92. With which can Radio wave of constant amplitude be generated? – Oscillator 
93. What is the electrical circuit used to get smooth DC output from a rectifier circuit called? – Filter 
94. If germanium has to be doped with a donor impurity, how should the foreign atom be? – Pentavalent 
95. In a p-type semiconductor, Which are the majority charge carriers? – Holes 
96. The unidirectional property of a pn-junction is useful for its use as which thing? – Rectifier 
97. Which energy of the electron at absolute zero is called? – Fermi energy 
98. For television broadcasting, what frequency is employed normally? – 30-300 MHz 
99. A zener diode is also a p – n junction diode. It can be used as which regular? – DC voltage regulator 100. Which effect shows particle nature of height? – Photoelectric effect

General Science (Chemistry) Practice Questions

1. What is the name of the scientist who stated that matter can be converted into energy? – Einstein 
2. The isotopes of chlorine with mass number 35 and 37 exist in which ratio? – 3 : 1 
3. A gas is found to have the formula (CO)n. Its vapour density is 70. What must the value of n be? – 5 
4. Which law directly explains the law of conservation of mass? – Avogadro’s law 
5. To whom the credit for the discovery of transuranic element goes? – Seaborg 
6. How many moles are there is 140 g of Si (atomic mass of silicon is 28)? – 5 
7. Which substance does not have a melting point? – Glass 
8. By which a mixture of sand and naphthalene can be separated? – sublimation 
9. An element X forms an oxide X03. What is the valency of X? – 610. Sodium carbonate crystals lose water molecules. What is this property called? – Efflorescence 

44. Red litmus paper is changed into blue in solution of which thing? – Base 
45. What is formed by dissolution of base or acid in water? – Exothermic 
46. Blue litmus paper is converted into red in solution of which thing? – acid 
47. According to Arrhenius theory of an acid and base, an acid is a substance that gives which ions in water? – H+ ions 
48. What is the negative logarithmic value of hydrogen on called? – pH 
49. What are the physical state of dispersion medium of a cloud ? – Gas 
50. Vander Wall’s equation explains the behaviour of which gases? – real gases 
51. In general gas equation, pV= nRT, V is the volume of which gas? – n mole of a gas 
52. What is the ratio of rate of diffusion of oxygen and hydrogen? – 1 : 4 
53. Absolute zero is the temperature where all gases are expected to have howmuch volume? – Zero volume 
54. 4.4 g of CO2 contains how many litre of CO2 at STP? – 2.24 litre 
55. Glucose or fructose is converted into C2H5OH in the presence of which thing? – zymase 
56. Which type of materials act as effective catalysis? – Transition metals 
57. What is the substance which decreases the rate of a chemical reaction? – Poison 
58. TEL minimise the knocking effect when mixed with petrol, how does it act? – As negative catalyst 
59. Which is the catalyst used in the manufacture of sulphuric acid by contact process? – V2O5 
60. Which catalyst is sensitive to temperature changes? – Enzyme 
61. Which is the temperature at which the catalytic activity of the catayist is maximum? – Optimum temperature 
62. Alcoholic fermentation is brought about the action of which thing? – Yeast 
63. Which is catalyst used in the Deacon’s process for the manufacture of chlorine? – CuCl2 
64. In the Ostwald’s process for manufacture of HNO3, which catalyst is used? – Pt 
65. Which gas has maximum colorific value? – Oil gas 
66. When ammonium chloride is dissolved in water, the solution becomes cold. Whiat is change? – Endothermic 
67. When ice melts into water, which type of change occurs in entropy? – Increases 
68. In which type of coal percentage of carbon is the highest? – Anthracite 
69. What is the mixture of carbon monoxide and nitrogen called? – Producer gas 
70. What is the mixture of carbon monoxide and hydrogen called? – Water gas 
71. Which law of thermodynamics introduces the concept of entropy? – Second law 
72. For which element, the standard enthalpy is not zero? – C (Diamond) 
73. Which fuel causes minimum environmental pollution? – Hydrogen 
74. Which gas has the highest fuel value? – Hydrogen 
75. The compound with negative heat of formation is known as which name? – Exothermic compound 
76. Which hydrocarbon is mainly present in gobar gas? – Methane 
77. What happens when the door of a refrigerator is kept open? – Room heated 
78. What does the second law of thermodynamics introduced? – The concept of Entropy 
79. What is an extensive property of the system? – Volume 
80. A gas expands isothermally and reversible. How much work is done by the gas? – Maximum 
81. About which is the information not conveyed by thermodynamics? – Rates of reactions 
82. Which is the element that has the highest first ionization potential? – Nitrogen 
83. What has the highest ionization potential? – Ne 
84. Which of the following among alkali metals is most reactive? – Cs 
85. Which is the element having lowest melting point in periodic table? – He 
86. Which are the elements on the right side of the periodic table? – Non-metals 
87. Which transition metal is in liquid state? – Mercury 
88. Which electronic configurations exhibits metallic character? – 2, 8, 2 
89. Which element has the lowest electron affinity? – Argon 
90. By whom was the calculation of electronegativities first done? – Pauling 
91. Which element does not exist in liquid state at room temperature ? – Na 
92. What is the most electropositive amongst the alkaline earth metals? – Barium 
93. Which block of elements is mostly metals with high B.P., M.P. values? – d-block 
94. Which are the vertical lines in modern periodic table called? – Group 
95. What is horizontal line in modern periodic table called? – Period 
96. In a period, the elements are arranged in which order? – Increasing charges in the nucleus
97. Which noble gas does not have octet of electrons in its outer shell? – He 
98. Which pair of elements is in the same period of the periodic table? – Na, Cl 
99. Why is the electron affinity of chlorine highest than that of fluorine? – Smaller nuclear charge 
100. What is the Electron affinity of noble gases? – Almost zero 

General Science (Biology) Questions and Answers

1. Trunk of tree increases in grith due to cell division in which tissue? – Meristematic tissue 
2. Which tissue in cells have lost the capicity of cell division? – Permanent tissue 
3. Which scientist studied about wheat rust problem? – K. C. Mehta 
4. Most of the plants obtain nitrogen from the soil in which from? – Nitrates 
5. Which fungus is responsible for disease late blight of potato? – Phytophthora infestans 
6. Which is responsible for red rot of sugarcane? – Collectorichum falcatum 
7. Which stage of development of insect is most harmful for crop? – Caterpillar 
8. In India famous Bengal famine accurred in 1942 by which disease? – Leaf spot of rice 
9. Which factors are most responsible for disease in plant? – Fungi 
10. Which fungus is responsible for the tikka disease of groundnut? – Cercosplora personata 

17. What is the Study of pulse and arterial blood pressure called? – Sphygmology 
18. Which branch of biology deals with the study of processing and preservation of food? – Food technology 
19. What is the Study of the effects of toxic chemical substance on animal and plant? – Toxicology 
20. What is the Branch of science which deals with the study of skin of man? – Dermatology 
21. The release of which fish into wells helps in controlling the mosquitoes? – Gambusia fish 
22. Which animal lays eggs and does not produce young ones directly? – Echidna 
23. How many pair of heart is found in an earthworm? – Four 
24. Which substance found in blood which helps in cloting? – Fibrinogen 
25. Which worm reach into intestine of human by eating leaf? – Tape worm 
26. Which is the phylum that includes exclusively marine animal? – Echinodermata 
27. Which organs has its own wave of autonomic excitation? – Heart 
28. What is the short upper part of human intestine next to the stomach? – Duodenum 
29. A person feel fatigued due to depositon of which acid in their muscles? – Latic Acid 
30. In the retina of eye cells what is present for colour differentiation? – Cones 
31. Which gland is responsible for the secretion of insulin? – Pancrease 
32. What is considered as the easily digestable source of protein? – Soyabean 
33. What percentage of water found in blood plasma of human? – 91 to 92% 
34. Which blood vessel bringing blood into Bowman’s capsule? – Afferent arteriole 
35. Bu which antibodies are produced in the plasma of blood? – Lymphocytes 
36. Which enzyme take part in digestion of milk protein? – Rennin 
37. Which part of brain is centre of thirst hunger and sleep? – Hypothalmus 
38. Blood Coagualtion is prevented by which chemical when it flow through artery and vein? – Heparin 
39. Which organelles in the cell, other than nucleus contains DNA? – Mitochondria 
40. What is infolding from the inner membrane of mitochondria called? – Cristae 
41. In a living cell what is the site of ribosome formation? – Nucleolus 
42. What do both respiration and photosynthesis require? – Cytochromes 
43. In absence of ribosome in cell which function does not takes place? – Protein synthesis 
44. Deficiency of which vitamin, causes xerophthelmia? – Vitamin A 
45. Which antimicrobial drug is suitable for treatment of both tuberculosis and leprosy? – Rifampicin 
46. Insects that can transmit diseases to human are referred to as which name? – Vectors 
47. Pneumoconiosis affects the workers who work mainly in which industry? – Coal mining industry 
48. Lathyrism is caused by excessive consumption of which thing? – Khesari Dal 
49. Which part of blood carry out the function of body defence? – White blood cell 
50. Which disease is caused due to presence of excess arsenic in water? – Skin Cancer 
51. What is the transmission of characters from one generation to next? – Heredity 
52. Who got noble prize for artificial synthesis of DNA? – Kornberg 
53. What is the smallest part of DNA that undergoes recombination? – Recon 
54. By whom was Artificial gene synthesis first done in laboratory? – Khurana 
55. By whom the concept of survival of the fittest as advanced? – Herbert Spencer 
56. From the evolutionary point of view, which is the most primitive animal? – Turtle 
57. Which was the Russian scientist who proposed the theory of origin of life? – Oparin 
58. Who published the book ‘Origin of species by natural selection in 1859’? – Darwin 
59. Which is most primitive ancestor of man ? – Australopithecus 
60. Which harmful element tobacoo exists in tobacoo ? – Nicotine 
61. What is abiotic component of ecosystem? – Water 
62. What is Study of inter relationship between living organism and their environment? – Ecology 
63. Epiphytes are plant which depend on other plants for which purpose? – Mechanical support 
64. What amount of energy transfered from one trophic level to next? – 10% 
65. Plant and animal living in a particular area, what is it called? – Community 
66. Reduced leaves and sunken stomata are the main feature of which thing? – Xerophytes 
67. What ratio of forest area needed for ecologycal balance in India? – 33.3% 
68. Ultimate environmental hazard to mankind, why? – Due to Nuclear pollution 
69. Sound become hazardous noise pollution at which level? – Above 80 dB 
70. Which energy do not have the problem of pollution? – Sun 
71. Which air pollutant affect the nervous system of man? – Lead 
72. By which is the Atmosphere of big metropolition cities is polluted most? – Automobile exhausts 
73. National Environmental Engineering research institute is situated in which city? – Nagpur 
74. Edward Jenner is related with which disease? – Small pox 
75. Which Scientist first explained about circulatory system? – William Harvey 
76. Who discovered Anopheles mosquito transmit malaria? – Ronal ross 
77. Who discovered the causal organism of the disease Anthrax? – Robert Koch 
78. Which Scientists has established the ‘Phylum Annelida’? – Lamark 
79. Which Biologist proposed the theory of Germ plasm? – Weisman 
80. For which is the southern blot technique used for the detection? – DNA 
81. For which is the northern blot technique used for the detection? – RNA 
82. What is the introduction of foreign genes for improving genotype? – Immunisation 
83. Which vitamin is transformed in golden rice ? – Vitamin A 
84. Human protein x –1 – antitrysin is used for which disease? – Emphysama 
85. Which type of cell has the ability to develop into any type of all ? – Stem cell 
86. What is the percentage of land area covered under forest according to Indian Forest policy? – 33% 
87. Which organisation is responsible for maintaing Red data book? – IUGN 
88. What is the main cause of extinction of species from tropics? – Deforestation 
89. What is the number of plant species estimated to be present in India? – 40,000 
90. Which group has the highest number of endangered species ? – Reptiles 
91. Silent valley having rare plant and animal is located in which state? – Kerala 
92. Which is the first national park established in India? – Corbet 93. Insectivorous plant generally grow in soil which is deficient in which gas? – Nitrogen 
94. What is one-way relationship where one species benefits at the expense of another is called? – Parasitism 
95. What is symbiotic relationship in which both species benefit’ is best described? – Mutualism 
96. Which of a species describes the tropic function it fills in its environment? – Niche 
97. What is the least influential in determining the distribution of terrestrial biomes? – Salinity 
98. What is the term for the maximum number of individuals that an area can support indefinitely? – Carrying capacity 
99. The massive hole in the ozone layer over the Antarctica was first discovered in which year? – 1985 
100. Which animals have a diet mainly consisting of bamboo? – Red pandas